Coalition of the Confused

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A bit of French Culture   The U.K and Europe

Started 6/20/19 by Di (amina046); 31282 views.
BerrySteph

From: BerrySteph

1/8/20

Jenifer (Zarknorph) said:

What was the question?

You wanted to know (in relation to an article that didn't mention "France" or "French") why the letter was in French.

Ideally, the way you phrased it, you should have answered your own question.

Without that completion, it was a question.

RGoss99

From: RGoss99

1/8/20

Your unjustified "wondering" is an implied synonym for the Word "why" which makes it a question.

RGoss99

From: RGoss99

1/8/20

Note I never called you stupid, just your question to which you already provided the answer thus removing your need to wonder. 

Here is a parallel "question" that could be asked using the Word "wonder". I just got back from a lectura tour in Turkey. as native speakers half the students were Turks, and the other half were Catalans or Spaniards. I lectured in English. A lady from Madrid, asked (mused, wondered) why if I was lecturing in English I spelled some of the words on the board in Spanish. This would be a valid question, for which an educated English speaker would probably know the answer. I lectured in English because all of the students had English as a second language, and none of the Turks spoke spanish, nor Spanish speakers spoke Turkish. The reason why I change spellings from English to Spanish, was because as most educated persons would know that since the Turks use the Latin alphabet, specific words spelled in Spanish are spelled the same way in Turkish, but not in English. For example, English as dominated by Oxford snobs has many words with Greek phonetic spellings, for example "ph" for "f" as in "photo…"  which in Spanish is "fotografia" and Turkish is   "fotografçilik" .

BerrySteph

From: BerrySteph

1/8/20

RGoss99 said:

Your unjustified "wondering" is an implied synonym for the Word "why" which makes it a question.

Yeah, I'd go along with that.

Bizarrely, in this case, she was questioning something that did not appear in the article she was referencing!

RGoss99

From: RGoss99

1/8/20

Here is basicly the same question in a justifiable context. I was lecturing on a tour of Anatolia. My students were half citizens of Spain (including 3 catalans and one basque who spoke Spanish as a second language) and half Turks all of whom spoke English as a second language, since English is the most popular third language in Spain, my lectures were in English except when writing vocabulary on the board, in which case I used the Spanish spelling. A woman from Madrid asked why (e.g. she was wondering why). So I explained That English, especially British English, has a phonetic problema with words of classical origin, the Turks and Spanish do not. For example English "ph" as in "photo" and "pharmacy" is replaced with an "f". I blame the Oxbridge snobs who gave us pesudo greek phonetics. Two famous American scholars rebelled, but lost because of anglofiles in America though things British had class - John Dewey, and Webster, both of whose first Works rejected words like british spelled: fisics, filosofy, rombus, etc. English is probably the only supposedly fonetic langauge where one can pronounce "ghoti" as |fish|. Here in Catalán the most common fonetic confusión is in proper names that evolved before the "alfabeth" was standardized. (examples are proper nouns beginning with c (before a vowell), z, and s.

Di (amina046)

From: Di (amina046)

1/8/20

you are a pompous ass! A lot of your "students" must use your "lectures" to catch up with lost sleep.

BerrySteph

From: BerrySteph

1/8/20

Di (amina046) said:

you are a pompous ass! A lot of your "students" must use your "lectures" to catch up with lost sleep.

Nobody who does things for and with others would come out and attack the likes of RGoss.

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