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Based on Malachi 3:16-18 I believe the Lord will harken to us as we consider his word together.

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The Believers Relationship with the Law of God   Bible discussions/all

Started 9/22/22 by Fred (fnorthrup); 888 views.
Fred (fnorthrup)

From: Fred (fnorthrup)

9/26/22

JS5777 said:

Who was the author of the Torah, God or Moses?

I would answer, "yes."

Fred (fnorthrup)

From: Fred (fnorthrup)

9/26/22

JS5777 said:

But the Law of God describes how His character behaves, and if THAT is eliminated... then the result is that we can behave in just any way that the flesh in its fallen condition imagines to do, and STILL claim salvation.

The Law of God has not been eliminated. The person that was under the law was crucified with Christ. Now, in us, Christ has replaced the law.

Galatians 2:19-21 For I through the law am dead to the law, that I might live unto God.
I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me.I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.

I am dead to the law...Christ lives in me...if righteousness comes by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.

JS5777

From: JS5777

9/26/22

I would take that response as meaning that you think that BOTH God AND Moses authored the Torah.

How do you determine which parts of the Torah were authored by God and which parts were authored by Moses?

 

Shalom,

JS5777

PAULFROMNYS

From: PAULFROMNYS

9/26/22

      

JS5777 said:

Who was the author of the Torah, God or Moses?

I would answer, "yes." 

   Paul:  LOL.   

Fred (fnorthrup)

From: Fred (fnorthrup)

9/26/22

JS5777 said:

I would take that response as meaning that you think that BOTH God AND Moses authored the Torah.

I'm not trying to be cute brother.

All Scripture is God -breathed and therefore profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness. Therefore the Torah is of God and out of God.

The man who produced the first 5 books of the Bible and whose name is on them is Moses. Therefore they are called by Luke, "Moses." 

Luke 24:27 And beginning at Moses and -- all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the Scriptures the things concerning himself.

I think we are still discussing what Paul meant by "the law?" Because he uses "the law" and "the commandment" interchangeably in Romans 7, I do believe that is what he meant: the commandments, with the attending ordinances and statutes. 

Galatians 5:14 For all the law is fulfilled in one word, even in this; Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself.

What do you think Paul meant by "all the law"

v. 18 But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law.

Always this is presented as mutually exclusive. If we are under the law, we are in the flesh. If we walk by the Spirit, we are not under the law. There is no such thing in the Bible as Jesus helping us keep the law.

Romans 13:9 For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended (sum up, gather into one) in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself.

What do you think Paul means by "and if there be any other commandment?" I believe, based on so many verses, that he was definitely talking about the commandments, all of them.

JS5777

From: JS5777

9/26/22

Fred said: "I'm not trying to be cute brother."

I am not trying to be cute either, I had a very specific reason, which DOES relate to the topic of this thread, and would appreciate a direct answer, instead of an avoidance of the question.

How do you determine the difference between the portions of the Torah that were authored by God, and those portions which were authored by Moses?

 

Shalom,

JS5777

Fred (fnorthrup)

From: Fred (fnorthrup)

9/26/22

JS5777 said:

How do you determine the difference between the portions of the Torah that were authored by God, and those portions which were authored by Moses?

I am not avoiding your question at all. I am not sure what you are asking. According to the Scriptures " God spoke to the fathers by the prophets." Hebrews 1:1-2

If you asked me, who spoke, God or the prophets? I would say "God spoke to the fathers by the prophets." God's speaking was in the prophets speaking and the prophets speaking was God's speaking. The answer would be "yes."

But your question is "who authored." I'm not even sure what you mean. I guess one answer is that the commandments were written by the finger of God in a stone, then He authored that part. Since Moses presumably wrote the first 5 books, excluding what God wrote with His finger, then Moses wrote that part.

Fred (fnorthrup)

From: Fred (fnorthrup)

9/26/22

JS5777 said:

Sadly, there are some people that think that ANY fulfilling of ANY part of the Law of God has been completely eliminated. But the Law of God describes how His character behaves, and if THAT is eliminated... then the result is that we can behave in just any way that the flesh in its fallen condition imagines to do, and STILL claim salvation.

I do not think Paul was one of those people, and neither am I. Paul makes abundantly clear that there is nothing wrong with the law, and the law has not gone anywhere. He also makes abundantly clear that we are in no way under the law. 

Because we are begotten of God to be sons of God, and have the divine nature, the law no longer relates to us. However, this does not mean that there is not a fulfillment of the righteous requirement of the law. We who walk by the Spirit do fulfill the requirement of the law of God.

Romans 8:4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Romans 8:14 For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God.

2 Peter 1:4 Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust.

JS5777

From: JS5777

9/26/22

Are you saying that the pneuma/ruach/Spirit was merged with the spirit of the prophets?

Or is it more accurate to say that the Word was dictated to the prophets, whom acted more as scribes, and that there was NO mixture of the fallen spirit of man into the writing of the Word of God?

This is an important detail to be resolved.

 

Shalom,

JS5777

Fred (fnorthrup)

From: Fred (fnorthrup)

9/26/22

JS5777 said:

Are you saying that the pneuma/ruach/Spirit was merged with the spirit of the prophets?

No. I do not believe this was possible before Jesus was raised from the dead. Now, he who is joined to the Lord is one spirit. I do not say merged, but mingled, because that term is used in Leviticus and I believe describes our union with the Spirit, like grafting. The life of the branch is joined to and mingled with the life of the tree.

1 Corinthians 6:17 But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit.

That one spirit is our mingled spirit, mingled with the Holy Spirit. The law of the Spirit of life involves our spirit and God's Spirit as one spirit. That is the Spirit we walk by and live by.

The Spirit of God came upon the prophets and they spoke, so God was in their speaking and their speaking, or writing became the word of God, but this is not the same as the word becoming flesh. In the New Testament, beginning with Christ, God enters into man, mingles with man to be one with man. 

That is why I have something of an issue with people who stand and say "Thus saith the Lord." This is in the principle of the Old Testament. Paul, or Peter did not say "Thus saith the Lord", they just spoke, and their speaking was full of life. This is the New Testament way. God manifested in the flesh.

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